Antibiotics and Antifungals

• Long-term use of tetracycline can lead to the overgrowth of Candida Albicans, resulting in oral candidiasis. [Q0345]
• Tetracycline is known to cause permanent tooth discoloration when administered during tooth development. [Q0365]
• Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria and is commonly used to treat acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (AUG/NUG). [Q0686]
• Aminoglycosides are not safe for use in myasthenic gravis as they can exacerbate muscle weakness. [Q3234]
• Amoxicillin and ampicillin can cause a rash in patients with infectious mononucleosis. [Q3236]
• Clindamycin is more commonly associated with pseudomembranous colitis than amoxicillin. [Q3237]
• Amoxicillin regimes can only be safely repeated with doctor’s approval to avoid resistance and other issues. [Q3238]
• Amoxicillin and ampicillin are contraindicated in infectious mononucleosis due to the risk of rash. [Q3239]
• Penicillin is an antibacterial substance effective against a range of bacterial infections. [Q3277]
• Amoxicillin is the antibiotic of choice for many bacterial infections due to its broad-spectrum activity. [Q3281]
• Augmentin is composed of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, enhancing its effectiveness against resistant bacteria. [Q3322]
• Clindamycin should be avoided in cases of diarrhea, renal diseases, and liver diseases due to potential adverse effects. [Q3481]
• Clindamycin regimes should not be repeated within one week to prevent toxicity and resistance. [Q3482]
• Miconazole is used to treat angular cheilitis caused by fungal infections. [Q3629]
• Acyclovir is used to treat herpes zoster by inhibiting viral replication. [Q3630]
• Amoxicillin is typically administered three times a day to maintain effective blood levels. [Q3632]
• Amoxicillin is most likely to cause rashes in patients with infectious mononucleosis. [Q3633]
• Vancomycin is the drug of choice for treating MRSA infections due to its effectiveness against resistant strains. [Q3634]
• Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms. [Q3814]
• Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic commonly used to treat severe infections. [Q3815]
• Gentamicin commonly causes ototoxicity, including vestibular and auditory dysfunction, as side effects. [Q3816]
• Acyclovir inhibits viral DNA synthesis, preventing the replication of herpes viruses. [Q4350]
• Ciprofloxacin inhibits DNA gyrase in bacteria, disrupting bacterial DNA replication. [Q4351]
• Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis, which is essential for bacterial growth. [Q4352]
• Metronidazole is known to cause taste disturbances, often described as a metallic taste, during long-term use. [Q4815]
• Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria, preventing bacterial growth. [Q4897]
• Tetracycline should be avoided in young children and patients with myasthenia gravis due to potential side effects. [Q4898]
• Tetracycline can stain both primary and permanent dentition if taken during tooth development. [Q4899]
• Respiratory depression is a known adverse effect of pethidine, an opioid analgesic. [Q5539]
• Methoxyflurane is known to produce toxicity, particularly nephrotoxicity, making its use limited. [Q5542]
• The warning card for patients on steroids is yellow to indicate the need for caution in medical management. [Q5571]
• The warning card for patients on warfarin is yellow to indicate the risk of bleeding complications. [Q5572]
• Topical lignocaine is often used at a concentration of 0.05 for effective local anesthesia. [Q5583]
• The concentration of chlorhexidine in mouthwash is typically 0.01, providing effective antibacterial action. [Q5584]
• The maximum safe doses for aspirin, ibuprofen, and paracetamol are 3000mg, 2400mg, and 4000mg respectively. [Q5644]
• Acyclovir inhibits viral DNA polymerase, preventing viral replication and reducing symptoms. [Q5655]
• Benzodiazepines enhance GABAergic activity, producing a calming effect on the central nervous system. [Q5656]
• Carbamazepine blocks sodium channels, reducing the transmission of nerve impulses and controlling seizures. [Q5657]
• Cephalosporins inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis, leading to bacterial cell death and effective infection control. [Q5658]
• Clindamycin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit, preventing bacterial growth. [Q5659]
• Erythromycin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit, similar to clindamycin. [Q5660]
• Fluconazole disrupts the fungal cell membrane by inhibiting the synthesis of ergosterol, leading to fungal cell death. [Q5661]
• Gentamicin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, making it effective against severe infections. [Q5662]
• Metronidazole disrupts DNA synthesis in anaerobic bacteria and protozoa, leading to cell death and resolving infections. [Q5663]
• Penicillin inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins, preventing bacterial growth. [Q5664]
• Polymyxin disrupts bacterial cell membranes by binding to phospholipids, leading to cell lysis and death. [Q5665]
• Rifampicin inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase in bacteria, preventing bacterial replication and transcription. [Q5666]
• Tetracycline inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, effectively treating various infections. [Q5667]
• Vancomycin inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to D-alanyl-D-alanine terminus of cell wall precursors, treating resistant infections. [Q5668]
• Epinephrine is the most potent vasoconstrictor used in dentistry, prolonging the effect of local anesthetics and reducing bleeding. [Q5676]
• Chlorhexidine use is associated with side effects such as staining, altered taste, and increased calculus formation. [Q5734]
• Penicillin allergy may present with symptoms such as rash, hives, swelling, and anaphylaxis, requiring immediate medical attention. [Q5814]
• Aspirin can cause bronchospasm in asthmatics due to aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease, necessitating caution. [Q5913]
• Loperamide, an antidiarrheal, can cause constipation as a side effect by reducing intestinal motility. [Q5914]
• Metformin can cause diarrhea as a common side effect, affecting gastrointestinal function. [Q5915]
• Ergotamine can cause severe abdominal cramps due to its vasoconstrictive properties, used in migraine treatment. [Q5916]
• Aspirin overdose can cause tinnitus, indicating salicylate toxicity and requiring prompt intervention. [Q5917]
• Amoxicillin is commonly administered three times a day to maintain therapeutic blood levels and effectiveness. [Q5918]
• Aspirin should be avoided in patients on warfarin as it increases the risk of bleeding complications. [Q5921]
• Fluconazole is effective for systemic fungal infections, including gastrointestinal tract infections, due to its broad antifungal activity. [Q5976]
• Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria, making it a preferred choice for anaerobic infections. [Q5990]
• Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, affecting oral health. [Q6007]

Drug Interactions in Dentistry

• Pethidine is contraindicated with MAOIs due to the risk of severe reactions, including hypertensive crisis. Dentists should avoid prescribing pethidine to patients on MAOIs. [Q0137]
• MAOI use contraindicates barbiturates, local anesthetics, and pethidine due to the risk of severe adverse reactions. Proper medical history is crucial before administering any of these drugs. [Q0233]
• Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including morphine coma. It is a vital medication in emergency dental settings. [Q0618]
• Heparin is not administered subcutaneously for rapid action; instead, it acts quickly when given intravenously. Warfarin reversal requires Vitamin K and takes at least 12 hours. [Q0966]
• Adrenaline can interact with beta-blockers like Propranolol to raise blood pressure significantly. Dentists should monitor patients with these medications closely during procedures. [Q3170]
• Both adrenaline and noradrenaline can cause hypertensive reactions when used with MAOIs. Careful consideration is needed when treating patients on these medications. [Q3173]
• Medications like antidepressants, tranquilizers, antihypertensives, and diuretics can reduce salivary flow, increasing the risk of dental caries. Regular dental check-ups are essential for patients on these medications. [Q3283]
• Anaphylactic shock from penicillin hypersensitivity involves widespread vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, leading to potentially fatal hypotension. Immediate medical intervention is necessary in such cases. [Q3495]
• Beta-blockers can exacerbate asthma symptoms, making it important for dentists to be aware of a patient’s asthma history. Alternative medications should be considered if necessary. [Q3627]
• Aspirin potentiates the effects of Warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Dentists must be cautious when prescribing these medications together. [Q3638]
• Flumazenil is the antagonist for midazolam, used to reverse its effects quickly in case of overdose or prolonged sedation. It is an essential drug in dental emergencies. [Q3735]
• Adrenaline should be given immediately in anaphylaxis if salbutamol is not available, as it is the first-line treatment to counteract severe allergic reactions. [Q4006]
• Interaction between barbiturates and antihypertensive drugs can cause significant hypotension. Dentists should be vigilant about potential drug interactions in patients with complex medication regimens. [Q4173]
• Interaction between pethidine and monoamine oxidase inhibitors can cause severe hypertension. Dentists must avoid using pethidine in patients taking MAOIs. [Q4174]
• MAOIs can interact with indirectly acting sympathomimetic drugs like ephedrine, leading to severe hypertension. Proper drug history is essential to prevent such interactions. [Q4306]
• MAOIs should not be used with opioids due to the risk of severe interactions, including hypertensive crises. Dentists must carefully review patients’ medication lists. [Q4357]
• Norepinephrine at 1:20000 concentration in local anesthesia can cause acute hypertension and cerebral hemorrhage in susceptible individuals. It should be used with caution. [Q4447]
• Tetracycline forms insoluble chelates with calcium, magnesium, iron, and aluminum, reducing its absorption. Patients should avoid consuming these substances when taking tetracycline. [Q4896]
• Amiodarone potentiates the effect of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Close monitoring of INR levels is required when these drugs are prescribed together. [Q5920]

Other

• Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin and other clotting factors, playing a crucial role in blood coagulation. Deficiency can lead to bleeding disorders. [Q0610]
• Vitamin C is not synthesized or stored in the human body and must be obtained regularly through the diet to prevent deficiency diseases like scurvy. [Q0642]
• Methyldopa (Aldomet) is commonly used to treat hypertension, requiring careful blood pressure monitoring. It may cause orthostatic hypotension as a side effect. [Q0722]
• Fluoride does not produce extrinsic tooth staining but is effective in preventing dental caries. Proper fluoride use is important in dental care. [Q0867]
• Thiamine is essential for cellular energy production, particularly in carbohydrate metabolism. Deficiency can lead to conditions like beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. [Q0976]
• Beta-agonists are preferred for short-term management of asthma as they provide quick relief from symptoms by relaxing bronchial muscles. They are crucial in acute asthma attacks. [Q3351]
• Carbimazole is the usual antithyroid drug used to treat hyperthyroidism by reducing thyroid hormone production. Regular monitoring of thyroid function is necessary. [Q3416]
• The common concentration for chlorhexidine gel in the UK is 0.2%, used for its antibacterial properties in dental care. It helps in reducing dental plaque and gingivitis. [Q3510]
• The common concentration for chlorhexidine mouthwash in the UK is 0.12%, used for managing oral infections and maintaining oral hygiene. It is effective against a broad range of microbes. [Q3511]
• Ferric sulphate is commonly used in pulpotomy at a concentration of 15.5% due to its hemostatic properties. It helps control bleeding and promotes healing in dental procedures. [Q3719]
• This medication regimen, involving doubling the daily dose one day prior and post-treatment along with 100 mg of hydrocortisone orally 1 hour before the treatment, is for managing adrenal insufficiency during stress. It prevents adrenal crisis during dental procedures. [Q3732]
• Gelatin foam is used as a hemostatic agent to control bleeding during surgical procedures. It is absorbable and helps in wound healing. [Q3810]
• The route of administration for GIN (assumed to mean gingival administration) is typically oral, delivering medication directly to the gums for local effect. [Q3822]
• Chlorpheniramine should be given intravenously in a dose of 1-2 mg to manage allergic reactions. It is an antihistamine that helps reduce symptoms of allergy. [Q3825]
• The intravenous dose of hydrocortisone sodium succinate is typically 100-500 mg, used to manage severe inflammation and allergic reactions. It is crucial in emergency care. [Q3826]
• Glucagon is administered by injecting intramuscularly to treat severe hypoglycemia. It raises blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogenolysis. [Q3833]
• Heparin is not absorbed orally and is typically administered intravenously or subcutaneously to prevent and treat blood clots. It acts as an anticoagulant. [Q3882]
• One pint of beer typically contains about 2 units of alcohol, which is important for understanding alcohol consumption guidelines and its effects on health. [Q3920]
• Hydrocortisone succinate 200mg is typically administered intravenously to manage severe allergic reactions, inflammation, and adrenal insufficiency. [Q3962]
• Warfarin is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation to prevent blood clots, reducing the risk of stroke and systemic embolism. [Q4001]
• Patients on steroids and vathigptine (likely misinterpreted as vildagliptin) likely have diabetes, requiring careful monitoring of blood glucose levels. [Q4002]
• All of these are potential complications of third molar extraction, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Proper surgical technique and post-operative care are crucial. [Q4021]
• A mucocele is a lesion on the lower lip, typically a mucous cyst that forms due to blocked salivary glands. It may require surgical removal. [Q4237]
• Nicotine stomatitis is commonly seen in the palates of pipe or cigar smokers, characterized by inflamed salivary gland openings. It is a benign condition but indicates heavy tobacco use. [Q4238]
• Fluticasone is typically prescribed for chronic sinusitis to reduce inflammation and improve nasal airflow. It is a corticosteroid used as a nasal spray. [Q4322]
• Iron supplements often lead to constipation, a common side effect requiring dietary adjustments or additional medications to manage. [Q4324]
• Calcium and Phosphorus are essential for dental health, contributing to the formation and maintenance of strong teeth and bones. Deficiencies can lead to dental issues. [Q4346]
• Prostacyclin causes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggregation, playing a crucial role in preventing blood clot formation and maintaining vascular health. [Q4675]
• Vertical root fractures often result in a split tooth, requiring extraction or advanced dental procedures to manage. Early detection is important for effective treatment. [Q4696]
• The soap bubble appearance on X-ray is a characteristic feature of ameloblastoma, a benign but locally aggressive odontogenic tumor. It requires surgical removal. [Q4765]
• Inhalation is the appropriate route of administration for salbutamol, providing rapid relief from asthma symptoms by dilating bronchial passages. [Q4767]
• Myelosuppression is a known side effect of Azathioprine, leading to a decreased production of blood cells. Regular blood tests are necessary to monitor for this effect. [Q4796]
• Hemolytic anemia is a side effect of dapsone, characterized by the destruction of red blood cells. Monitoring and dose adjustments may be needed. [Q4797]
• Warfarin counteracts the action of Vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. This interaction is used therapeutically to prevent thromboembolic events. [Q5812]
• Capillaries carry the least amount of blood, facilitating the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between blood and tissues. [Q5872]
• Cromolyn sodium is used to stabilize mast cells and prevent degranulation, thereby reducing allergic responses and asthma symptoms. [Q6022]
• Epinephrine is an adrenergic agonist, commonly used to manage anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest due to its rapid action in stimulating the heart and relaxing airways. [Q6065]
• Felypressin is a vasopressor used in combination with local anesthetics to reduce bleeding during dental procedures. It constricts blood vessels to control hemorrhage. [Q6066]

Analgesics and Anti-inflammatory Drugs

• Enkephalins are endogenous opioid peptides that help control pain. These natural substances are crucial for the body’s pain management system. [Q0035]
• Opioid analgesics work by releasing enkephalins, which are natural pain-relieving peptides. This mechanism helps in providing effective pain relief. [Q0231]
• Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is specifically used to treat trigeminal neuralgia. This medication stabilizes nerve activity, reducing pain. [Q0327]
• Aspirin blocks the cyclo-oxygenase pathway, reducing the production of pain-inducing prostaglandins. This mechanism makes aspirin effective in pain and inflammation management. [Q0516]
• Paracetamol can cause liver damage even with mild overdose, highlighting the importance of adhering to recommended dosages. Careful monitoring is essential when prescribing this medication. [Q0969]
• Aspirin acts as an antiplatelet agent in myocardial infarction, preventing further clot formation. This property is beneficial in reducing the risk of heart attacks. [Q3158]
• Only amitriptyline and dothiepin are typically used for myofascial pain dysfunction. These medications help in managing chronic pain conditions. [Q3241]
• Acetaminophen is recommended because it does not trigger asthma symptoms. This makes it a safe analgesic choice for asthmatic patients. [Q3252]
• Naproxen is effective for managing pain post-extraction. It provides long-lasting relief by reducing inflammation. [Q3253]
• Acetaminophen is preferred as it does not irritate the stomach lining. This makes it suitable for patients with peptic ulcers. [Q3254]
• Yes, these anticonvulsants are used to treat trigeminal neuralgia. They help in controlling nerve pain effectively. [Q3278]
• Aqueous hydrocortisone is used for its anti-inflammatory effect in joint irrigation. It helps reduce swelling and pain in joint treatments. [Q3296]
• Aspirin primarily exerts its effects through its anti-inflammatory activity by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes. This action reduces pain and inflammation. [Q3302]
• Aspirin can cause gastric ulcers as a common adverse effect due to its impact on the stomach lining. Patients should be monitored for gastrointestinal issues. [Q3303]
• Aspirin is primarily used to relieve pain. It is also effective in reducing inflammation and fever. [Q3304]
• Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation, which helps in preventing blood clots. This property is useful in reducing the risk of cardiovascular events. [Q3305]
• Paracetamol is the safest choice for a 12-year-old asthmatic as it does not trigger asthma symptoms. It provides effective pain relief without adverse respiratory effects. [Q3341]
• Codeine and paracetamol are considered good alternatives to aspirin and NSAIDs in cases of platelet dysfunction. They provide pain relief without affecting platelet function. [Q3491]
• Common analgesics are usually not sufficient to alleviate pain in cases of dry socket; stronger medication is often needed. Dentists should consider prescribing more potent pain relievers. [Q3497]
• Corticosteroids, including dexamethasone, can reduce pain and inflammation and can be given to surgical patients. They help in managing postoperative discomfort. [Q3529]
• Dihydrocodeine can be used for moderate to severe pain. It is effective in providing significant pain relief. [Q3609]
• Ibuprofen should be avoided in asthmatics as it can exacerbate symptoms. Alternative analgesics should be considered for these patients. [Q3626]
• Ibuprofen is recommended for pain management after molar extractions. Its anti-inflammatory properties help in reducing postoperative pain. [Q3628]
• Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia. It effectively manages nerve pain associated with this condition. [Q3631]
• Sumatriptan is commonly used for treating migraines, including migrainous neuralgia. It provides relief by narrowing blood vessels around the brain. [Q3637]
• Both ibuprofen and paracetamol are suitable analgesics for this situation. They help in managing pain and reducing inflammation. [Q3985]
• Ibuprofen is recommended mainly for its anti-inflammatory effects. This makes it effective in treating pain associated with inflammation. [Q3986]
• Ibuprofen is the most used NSAID worldwide. Its effectiveness and safety profile contribute to its widespread use. [Q3988]
• Opioids commonly cause constipation. This is a notable side effect that requires management in patients on long-term opioid therapy. [Q4321]
• Carbamazepine is commonly used to treat trigeminal neuralgia. It helps in stabilizing nerve activity and reducing pain. [Q4323]
• Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be used together to manage severe pain more effectively. This combination provides enhanced pain relief and anti-inflammatory effects. [Q4517]
• Paracetamol can be hepatotoxic in anorexia nervosa due to decreased liver function. Careful dosing and monitoring are necessary in these patients. [Q4518]
• Acetaminophen is recommended for patients with peptic ulcers as it is less likely to irritate the stomach lining. It is a safer choice for pain relief in these patients. [Q5860]
• Morphine, an opioid, is well known to cause constipation. This side effect is significant in managing patients on long-term opioid therapy. [Q6005]

Local Anesthetics

• TRUE, about 80% of lignocaine binds to plasma proteins like Alpha-1-Acid Glycoprotein. This binding affects its duration and intensity of action. [Q3142]
• Yes, but intramuscular injection is generally faster for adrenaline. This route ensures quicker systemic absorption. [Q3169]
• Yes, adrenaline is added to prilocaine to prolong its duration by causing vasoconstriction. This effect helps in maintaining anesthesia during dental procedures. [Q3172]
• Yes, Amethocaine gel can act faster but may cause more skin irritation compared to EMLA. It is important to consider the patient’s skin sensitivity. [Q3233]
• Yes, bisulfite is commonly used as a preservative for vasoconstrictors in local anesthetic solutions. This helps in extending the shelf life and effectiveness of the anesthetic. [Q3366]
• Bupivacaine can be used for longer dental procedures due to its long-acting anesthetic effect. It provides extended pain relief during and after the procedure. [Q3394]
• The typical concentration of prilocaine is 4%. This concentration is effective for achieving adequate anesthesia in dental procedures. [Q3512]
• EMLA cream can be used as a topical anesthetic to reduce pain for skin procedures. It is effective in numbing the skin surface. [Q3758]
• The maximum recommended dose of lignocaine 2% is 7 mg/kg, which totals 875 mg for a 125 kg person. However, 1000 mg is often cited as a practical upper limit. [Q3930]
• The maximum recommended dose of lignocaine 2% is 7 mg/kg, which totals 140 mg for a 20 kg person. 80 mg is a safer practical limit. [Q3931]
• Each 2.2 ml cartridge of 2% lidocaine contains 44 mg/ml, so 3 cartridges contain 198 mg. This dosage is used for effective local anesthesia. [Q3932]
• Each 2.2 ml cartridge of 3% lidocaine contains 66 mg/ml, so a single cartridge contains 99 mg. This provides a higher concentration for anesthesia. [Q3933]
• No, procaine was the first synthetic local anesthetic. Lignocaine, also known as lidocaine, was developed later and is widely used today. [Q4249]
• The maximum recommended dose for an adult weighing 125 kg is 2000 mg. This ensures effective anesthesia while minimizing toxicity. [Q4312]
• The maximum dose of Etidocaine for a child weighing 20 kg is 8 mg/kg. This dosing is essential for safe and effective anesthesia in pediatric patients. [Q4313]

Sedatives and Anxiolytics

• Benzodiazepines have hangover effects due to active metabolites. These effects can include drowsiness and impaired coordination. [Q0570]
• Barbiturates can cause respiratory depression by depressing the central nervous system, reducing the respiratory drive. This risk requires careful monitoring. [Q0646]
• Diazepam has an elimination half-life of 12-30 hours, reflecting its duration of action. This prolonged half-life can lead to accumulation with repeated dosing. [Q0960]

Drug Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics

• The Gate Control Theory posits that pain is modulated by the interplay of excitatory and inhibitory signals at the spinal cord level, affecting the perception of pain. This theory helps explain how non-pharmacological methods, such as massage or acupuncture, can influence pain perception. [Q0203]
• Glycerine trinitrate relieves angina pain by decreasing venous return, reducing the workload on the heart. This mechanism allows the heart to require less oxygen, thus providing relief from anginal symptoms. [Q0549]
• The mode of action refers to the mechanism by which a drug exerts its therapeutic effect on the body. Understanding a drug’s mode of action is crucial for predicting its effects and potential side effects. [Q0687]
• Sublingual glyceryl bi-nitrate acts quickly to relieve angina by dilating coronary arteries. This rapid onset is due to the drug’s quick absorption through the mucous membranes under the tongue. [Q0723]
• Adrenaline causes constriction of skin and visceral vessels (alpha effect) and dilation of muscle arterioles (beta effect). These effects are essential for preparing the body for a ‘fight or flight’ response. [Q3520]
• Dromotropic effects are related to the conduction speed of electrical impulses, and ionotropic effects are related to muscle contraction strength. Both effects are significant in managing cardiovascular function. [Q3624]
• Epinephrine binds to both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors, among others. This binding causes various physiological responses, including increased heart rate and vasoconstriction. [Q3682]
• Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction when it binds to alpha adrenergic receptors. This response is crucial for increasing blood pressure in emergency situations. [Q3683]